Invertible Functions and Finding the Inverse
A function f: A to B is invertible if there exists a function f⁻¹: B to A such that f⁻¹(f(x)) = x for every x in A and f(f⁻¹(y)) = y for every y in B. A function is invertible if and only if it is bijective.
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Student-friendly explanation
An inverse function reverses the action of the original function. It exists only when every output in the codomain comes from exactly one input. One-one gives uniqueness, and onto gives existence. Both are necessary.
How to write this in exams
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Start with the exact idea
A function f: A to B is invertible if there exists a function f⁻¹: B to A such that f⁻¹(f(x)) = x for every x in A and f(f⁻¹(y)) = y for every y in B. A function is invertible if and only if it is bijective.
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Then show how to use it
1. Note domain and codomain. 2. Prove one-one using f(a) = f(b), or give a counterexample if disproving. 3. Prove onto by solving y = f(x) for x in the domain. 4. Once bijective, solve y = f(x) for x. 5. Write the inverse with correct domain and codomain. 6. Optionally verify using f⁻¹(f(x)) = x and f(f⁻¹(x)) = x.
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Add one concrete example
For f: R to R, f(x) = 5x - 7, set y = 5x - 7. Then x = (y + 7)/5. Hence f⁻¹(y) = (y + 7)/5, or f⁻¹(x) = (x + 7)/5.
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Avoid this incomplete answer
Forgetting that f⁻¹ has domain equal to the codomain of f, causing an inverse formula to be written with the wrong domain.
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Why is f: R to R, f(x) = x^2 not invertible?
It is not one-one because f(1) = f(-1) = 1 for different inputs. Therefore it is not bijective and not invertible from R to R.
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